Thermodynamics important questions

Question No 1 :

The following are examples of some intensive and extensive properties :

1. Pressure
2. Temperature
3. Volume
4. Velocity
5. Electronic charge
6. Magnetisation
7. Viscosity
8. Potential energy

Which one of the following sets gives the correct combinations of Intensive and Extensive properties?

Option A : Intensive - 1 2 3 4 Extensive - 5 6 7 8

Option B : Intensive - 1 3 5 7 Extensive - 2 4 6 8

Option C : Intensive - 1 2 4 7 Extensive - 3 5 6 8

Option D : Intensive - 2 3 6 8 Extensive - 1 4 5 7

Explanation : 

Intensive properties : Independent of mass 

Extensive properties : Dependent of mass 

Question No 2 :

In an isothermal process, internal energy?

Option A: Increases

Option B: Decreases 

Option C: Remain constant

Option D: Gradually increases

Explanation: Decreases

Question No 3 : 

A reversible process?

Option A: Must pass through a continuous series of equilibrium states

Option B: Leaves no history of the events in surroundings 

Option C: Must pass through the same states on the reversed path as on the forward path 

Option D: All of these

Explanation: All of the above

Question No 4 : 

The specific heat of water with rising of temperature?

Option A: Increases

Option B: Decreases 

Option C: First decreases to a minimum then increases

Option D: Remain constant 

Explanation: Decrease to a minimum first then increase 

Question No 5 : 

When two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in thermal equilibrium with each other. This statement is :

Option A: Zeroth law of thermodynamics 

Option B: First law of thermodynamics 

Option C: Second law of thermodynamics 

Option D: None of the above 

Explanation: This is the statement of the zeroth law of thermodynamics 

Question No 6 : 

Kelvin-Plank's law deals with?

Option A: Conversion of work into heat

Option B: Conversion of heat into work 

Option C: Conversion of work 

Option D: Conversion of heat 

Explanation: Conversion of heat into work 

Question No 7 : 

According to the kinetic theory of gases, at absolute zero?

Option A: Specific heat of molecules reduces to zero 

Option B: Volume of gas reduce to zero

Option C: Kinetic energy of molecules reduces to zero 

Option D: Pressure of gas reduces to zero 

Explanation: Kinetic energy of molecules reduces to zero 

Question No 8 :

In a throttling process?

Option A : W = 0 

Option B : H = 0 

Option C : E = 0 

Option D : All of the above 

Explanation : At throttling all W, H, E = 0 

Question No 9 : 

In all reversible process, the entropy of the universe?

Option A: Increases 

Option B: Decreases 

Option C: Remains the same 

Option D: None of the above 

Explanation: Increases

Question No 10 : 

Efficiency of Carnot cycle is given by :

Option A : T1 + T2 / T1 

Option B : T1 - T2 / T1 

Option C : T1 / T1 + T2

Option D : T1 / T1 - T2 

Explanation : T1 - T2 / T1 

Question No 11 : 

The Carnot cycle consists of two reversible adiabatic processes and 

Option A: Two reversible isothermal processes 

Option B: Two reversible constant pressure processes 

Option C: Two reversible constant volume processes 

Option D: One reversible constant pressure processes

Explanation: Two reversible isothermal processes

Question No 12 : 

Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for?

Option A : Petrol engine 

Option B : Diesel engine 

Option C : Reversible engine 

Option D : Irreversible engine 

Explanation : Reversible engine 

Question No 13 :

In the Carnot cycle, the algebraic sum of the entropy changes for the cycle is?

Option A: Positive

Option B: Negative 

Option C: Zero 

Option D: None of the above 

Explanation: Zero 

Question No 14 : 
In the Carnot cycle, the process carried at extremely slow speed is 
Option A: Isothermal compression 
Option B: Adiabatic compression 
Option C: Adiabatic expansion 
Option D: All of these 
Explanation: All are extremely slow speed processes

Question No 15 :
Control volume refers to a 
Option A: Specific mass
Option B: Fixed region in the space
Option C: Closed system 
Option D: NONE 
Explanation: Fixed region in the space

Question No 16 : 
The internal energy of a perfect gas depends upon
Option A: Temperature only
Option B: Temperature and pressure 
Option C: Temperature, pressure and specific heats
Option D: NONE
Explanation: Temperature only

Question No 17 :
Joule Thomson coefficient for an ideal gas having equation pV=RT is 
Option A: Zero
Option B: 0.5
Option C: Unity
Option D: Infinite 
Explanation: Zero

Question No 18 :
The temperature of a gas is a measure of 
Option A: Average distance between gas molecules 
Option B: Average kinetic energy of gas molecules
Option C: Average potential energy of gas molecules
Option D: NONE
Explanation: Average kinetic energy of gas molecules

Question No 19 :
A gas, which obeys kinetic theory perfectly is 
Option A: Pure gas
Option B: Real gas
Option C: Perfect gas
Option D: All of these
Explanation: Real gas

Question No 20 : 
The temperature at which, the volume of a gas becomes zero, is called
Option A: Absolute temperature
Option B: Absolute zero temperature
Option C: Absolute scale of temperature
Option D: NONE of these
Explanation: Absolute zero temperature

Question No 21 :
The absolute zero pressure exists 
Option A: At sea level
Option B: At -273 K
Option C: At vacuum condition 
Option D: When the molecular momentum of the system becomes zero 
Explanation: When the molecular momentum of the system becomes zero 

Question No 22 :
Specific heat of gas, Cp = Cv, at
Option A: Absolute zero
Option B: Critical temperature
Option C: Triple point
Option D: All temperatures
Explanation: Absolute zero

Question No 23 : 
The gas constant R is equal to the
Option A: Sum of two specific heats
Option B: Difference of two specific heats
Option C: Product of two specific heats
Option D: Ratio of two specific heat 
Explanation: Difference of two specific heats

Question No 24 : 
Triple point 
Option A: Occurs in a mixture of two or more gases
Option B: In the point, where three phases exist together
Option C: Occurs in sublimation
Option D: None of the above
Explanation: In the point, where three phases exist together

Question No 25 : 
For a pure substance at its triple point, the number of degrees of freedom is 
Option A: 0
Option B: 1
Option C: 2
Option D: None of these
Explanation: Zero 
Consider a system consisting of pure gas, say A. It is, evidently, a one-component, one phase system. The two variable required to be specified will be temperature and pressure. The composition will remain invariable A. The degree of freedom will be 2 if the system will be bivariant. One component system having two phases called mono variant and three phases coexist defines the system completely, therefore, is said to be non-variant or invariant or degree of freedom is zero.  

Question No 26 : 
The efficiency of a Rankine cycle 
Option A: Increases with decreasing temperature of heat rejection
Option B: Decreases with decreasing temperature of heat rejection 
Option C: Decreases with increasing temperature of heat rejection
Option D: None of the above
Explanation: Increase with decreasing temperature and decrease with increasing temperature of heat rejection.

Question No 27 : 
Rankine cycle efficiency for a power plant is 29%. The Carnot cycle efficiency will be
Option A: Less
Option B: More 
Option C: Equal 
Option D: NONE of the above
Explanation: Carnot cycle efficiency is more than the Rankine cycle for the power plant. 

Question No 28 : 
The ideal efficiency of a simple gas turbine cycle depends upon
Option A: Pressure ratio
Option B: Cut-off ratio
Option C: Both A & B
Option D: None of the above
Explanation: Pressure ratio

Question No 29 : 
A system is said to be consisting of a pure substance when 
Option A: It is homogeneous in composition
Option B: It is homogeneous and invariable in chemical aggregation
Option C: It has only one phase
Option D: It has more than one phase
Explanation: It is homogeneous and invariable in chemical aggregation
A pure substance is one which is
Homogeneous in composition 
Homogeneous in chemical aggregation
Invariable in chemical aggregation

Question No 30 :

At its critical point, any substance will 

Option A: Exist all the three phases simultaneously

Option B: Change directly from solid to vapour

Option C: Lose phase distinction between liquid and vapour

Option D: Behave as an ideal gas

Explanation: Lose phase distinction between liquid and vapour

Checklist for filling up GATE Application form

Checklist for filling up GATE Application Form :

• Personal Details as per the certificates to be uploaded.
• Address for Communication (including PIN code),
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What is fee for GATE Exam

GATE Exam Application Fee :

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GATE Exam Information

What is the full form of GATE Exam?

What is the fee for GATE Exam?

Checklist for filling up the GATE Application form?

What is the age limit for GATE?

What is the full form of GATE Exam

Full-Form of GATE :

• Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 

The GATE is an entrance exam conducted in all-India level for admitting students into various postgraduates programs in the field of engineering, science and technology.

The exam is conducted by a collaboration of 7 IITs (Indian Institute of Technology) ad IISc (Indian Institute of Science).

The seven IITs include Delhi, Mumbai, Kanpur, Guwahati, Chennai, Kharagpur, and Roorkee and one IISc at Bangalore.

Gate exam is conducted in many subjects are as follows :

• Electronics and Communication Engineering 
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• Electrical Engineering
• Mechanical Engineering
• Aerospace Engineering
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• Chemical Engineering
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Eligibility :

• Bachelor degree holders in Engineering/Technology/Architecture i.e B.E./B.Tech/B.Arch
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The examination is of 3 hours duration and contains a total of 65 questions worth a maximum of 100 marks. 

Each subject's test contains 10 questions that test the "general aptitude" (language and analytic skills), apart from the core subject of the discipline.

From 2014 onward, the examination for all the papers is carried out in an online Computer Based Test (CBT) mode where the candidates are shown the questions in a random sequence on a computer screen. 

The questions consist of both multiple-choice questions (four answer options out of which the correct one has to be chosen) and numerical answer type questions (the answer is a real number, to be entered via an on-screen keypad and computer mouse).

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